Originally posted by Batman
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If JTR really wanted to milk this phenomenon to his advantage, then why do we only see apparent antisemitic clues (if Jack so intended them to be) in only two of the murders, and those both on the same night? Even there, the Jewish/anti-Jewish connections may be tenuous at best, given that (a) the murders happened in a part of London with a high Jewish/immigrant population; and (b) the degree of antisemitic/anti-immigrant feeling amongst the "natives" was likely to be correspondingly high.
In any case, whilst there were large numbers of Jews living in the area, there were still vastly more who weren't. I hardly think that JTR thought he'd be singled out of hundreds of thousands of gentiles unless he took pains to deflect the blame elsewhere. On the contrary, he could have saved himself a fair bit of hassle by simply hiding in the crowd.
Against that backdrop, I don't find the idea that the Ripper exploited antisemitism particularly compelling at all.
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