Originally posted by Sam Flynn
					
						
						
							
							
							
							
								
								
								
								
								
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		I would also contend that these weren't extremely different murders. In both cases the victims were mutilated, and that in itself is a rare paraphilia. It's not exactly a stretch that the killer's circumstances dictated the nature of his crimes. The Ripper series may have occurred more on the spur of the moment, or when the killer did not have access to his kill-house. He couldn't exactly take the Torso victims and dump them in the street a la Ripper, therefore they were dismembered and discarded, almost ritualistically it would seem.
					Originally posted by Abby Normal
					
						
						
							
							
							
							
								
								
								
								
								
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