Originally posted by Fisherman
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Your approach involved the arteries being part of the throat, remember?
Maybe that is not the best of vantage points from where to start a smearing campaign about me?
I don´t have to try and change any facts about the cases, and I have never done so.
The Ripper´s victims were cut down to the bone in three cases. That means that these victims had not only their throats cut, but all of their necks with the exception of the spine. Or as Thomas Bond put it "The neck was cut through the skin & other tissues right down to the vertebrae the 5th & 6th being deeply notched. The skin cuts in the front of the neck showed distinct ecchymosis."
You may remember that you made the point earlier that the front of the neck was called the throat, but here Bond explicitly speaks of cuts to the front of the neck and how the neck (not the throat) was cut to the bone.
It would seem that I have medical expertise on my side, therefore.
But back to the issue! As stated above, ALL of the neck was cut in three (60 per cent) Ripper cases.
We know that all of the neck was severed - including the bone - in the torso cases.
It is therefore quite evident that the victims may have sufered the exact same thing. Indeed, the medicos suggested the severing of the neck as a likely cause of death in both series.
So when I say that there is an evident possibility that it was a question of the same type of cutting in both series - and that is what I am saying, nothong else - I am on the money 100 per cent.
Contrary to this, inferring or implying or in any way suggesting that the Ripper victims were only subjected to violence that severed the throat and NOT the neck would be grossly misleading - the very thing you are warning against.
You seemingly make the point that I am not being honest and truthful and that my take on things is designed to con people into thinking that the series were related while they may not have been.
Let´s try the same tecnique on your reasoning. You seem to me to try and establish that there is cause to think that the cutting was NOT of the same type in the two series. On what do you base that? On how you say that the Ripper targetted throats and NOT necks.
It seems to me that you cannot bolster this suggestion of yours. No medico says that the killers only intention was to cut the throat, while he was not intersted in cutting the neck. Instead, it is very evident that he DID cut the neck, and it takes a much different effort to do that, so evidently there was an intention to do so.
Now, if no medico says that the killers only intention was to sever the throat, and if you cannot prove that thesis in any way, and if we know that the killer severed all of the throat save the spine - why would we make the assumption that there must have been different incitements for the torso mans cutting as opposed to the Rippers?
What tells us that the Torso killer did not start out by cutting the neck to the bone, bleeding his victims out, only to thereafter move on to the mutilations and dismemberment?
Nothing, Gareth. Absolutely nothing.
I am asking you politely not to infer that I am not honest. It is a level of debate we should not entertain, and you are the only person who can stop it. You may join Herlock and look for how I have worded myself previously, if you promise to learn from that.
Maybe that is not the best of vantage points from where to start a smearing campaign about me?
I don´t have to try and change any facts about the cases, and I have never done so.
The Ripper´s victims were cut down to the bone in three cases. That means that these victims had not only their throats cut, but all of their necks with the exception of the spine. Or as Thomas Bond put it "The neck was cut through the skin & other tissues right down to the vertebrae the 5th & 6th being deeply notched. The skin cuts in the front of the neck showed distinct ecchymosis."
You may remember that you made the point earlier that the front of the neck was called the throat, but here Bond explicitly speaks of cuts to the front of the neck and how the neck (not the throat) was cut to the bone.
It would seem that I have medical expertise on my side, therefore.
But back to the issue! As stated above, ALL of the neck was cut in three (60 per cent) Ripper cases.
We know that all of the neck was severed - including the bone - in the torso cases.
It is therefore quite evident that the victims may have sufered the exact same thing. Indeed, the medicos suggested the severing of the neck as a likely cause of death in both series.
So when I say that there is an evident possibility that it was a question of the same type of cutting in both series - and that is what I am saying, nothong else - I am on the money 100 per cent.
Contrary to this, inferring or implying or in any way suggesting that the Ripper victims were only subjected to violence that severed the throat and NOT the neck would be grossly misleading - the very thing you are warning against.
You seemingly make the point that I am not being honest and truthful and that my take on things is designed to con people into thinking that the series were related while they may not have been.
Let´s try the same tecnique on your reasoning. You seem to me to try and establish that there is cause to think that the cutting was NOT of the same type in the two series. On what do you base that? On how you say that the Ripper targetted throats and NOT necks.
It seems to me that you cannot bolster this suggestion of yours. No medico says that the killers only intention was to cut the throat, while he was not intersted in cutting the neck. Instead, it is very evident that he DID cut the neck, and it takes a much different effort to do that, so evidently there was an intention to do so.
Now, if no medico says that the killers only intention was to sever the throat, and if you cannot prove that thesis in any way, and if we know that the killer severed all of the throat save the spine - why would we make the assumption that there must have been different incitements for the torso mans cutting as opposed to the Rippers?
What tells us that the Torso killer did not start out by cutting the neck to the bone, bleeding his victims out, only to thereafter move on to the mutilations and dismemberment?
Nothing, Gareth. Absolutely nothing.
I am asking you politely not to infer that I am not honest. It is a level of debate we should not entertain, and you are the only person who can stop it. You may join Herlock and look for how I have worded myself previously, if you promise to learn from that.
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