Originally posted by Abby Normal
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This is, to my mind, one of the very best arguments for a shared identity. There seems to be no sadism at all involved in what the Ripper did, unless we are dealing with necro-sadism.
And there seems to be no sadism involved in what the Torso killer did, unless we are dealing with necro-sadism.
The general acceptance that the Torso killer had a bolthole begs the question what his aim was. People who abduct or lure victims into boltholes with the intent to kill will arguably have further reacing aims than that. I think it is fair to say that the norma reason for using a bolthole to kill is to be able to inflict damage and pain on the victim over a period of time before actually killing (usually) her.
But there is no evidence at all of any real physical damage or torture having been inflicted before the kill. There´s the odd bruise or two, but they may have come about as the killer grabbed or possibly hit the victim to subdue her. But no cuts, burnmarks, broken bones, whipmarks, nothing like that.
Therefoere it applies that if the dismemberment was merely practical, it seems the killer brought the victims to his lair, killed them, dismembered them and got rid of them.
Why?
It will not have been about robbery; Jackson was impoverished, pennyless.
So what remains?
The curious fact that both serialists seems to have killed swiftly and with no infliction of torture beforehand, implies to me that the aim was the same in both series - the procuring of a body. And since it is hard to come across freshly dead people in the streets, the killer had to take care of that part himself. It was, it seems, a means to an end - to access a body and to be able to cut into it, eviscerate it, mutilate it, cut it up in pieces - all of this at will, choosing what he wants to do to the different victims as he goes along.
Those who believe that the dismemberment was only about practical matters, what motive do you perceive for the torso killings? And what motive do you ascribe to the Ripper?
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