Hello everyone,
A quick question regarding the modus operandi of the killer. I think almost all the sources I've read, including the one on the introduction to this site, says that the killer waited until skirts were being raised by the victim before striking. I think that EVERY source I've read suggests that all victims bar Kelly were strangled until unconscious and then the knife came out. I've got no problem with this as a theory and it's certainly plausible, but...
...without wanting to be too vulgar, I can think of another reason why a prostitute's neck may be near a client's hands, assuming the client's hands were by his side and the prostitute was kneeling down. Yet I've not read anything that entertains this possibility.
Is there any particular evidence that rules out the idea of the victims kneeling in front of the Ripper, and being strangled whilst they did so?
I'm not sure where I'm going with this - obviously it's not going to help even in the slightest to discover the killer - but it is interesting (to me) that it doesn't even seem to be considered that the Ripper requested fellatio and then strangled the victims before it commenced.
If someone passes out when they're upright, and then they fall to the ground, would there be bruising? I'd imagine so. but I'm not aware of any bruising be described on the first four canonical victims.
If someone's being strangled and they're kneeling down, they'll have a much harder job escaping the strangulation; they also can't use their legs to, for instance, knee the attacker in the bollocks.
To me, this should at least be a possibility, surely. Just a thought. I'm not an expert on the killings so appreciate I could very easily have overlooked some huge error, but I'd be interested to know, if anyone's able to help me out, why the 'kneeling down' scenario doesn't seem to have got any following. Is it a throwback to Victorian sensibilities - "ladies never move" and all that?
Thanks,
Syrius
A quick question regarding the modus operandi of the killer. I think almost all the sources I've read, including the one on the introduction to this site, says that the killer waited until skirts were being raised by the victim before striking. I think that EVERY source I've read suggests that all victims bar Kelly were strangled until unconscious and then the knife came out. I've got no problem with this as a theory and it's certainly plausible, but...
...without wanting to be too vulgar, I can think of another reason why a prostitute's neck may be near a client's hands, assuming the client's hands were by his side and the prostitute was kneeling down. Yet I've not read anything that entertains this possibility.
Is there any particular evidence that rules out the idea of the victims kneeling in front of the Ripper, and being strangled whilst they did so?
I'm not sure where I'm going with this - obviously it's not going to help even in the slightest to discover the killer - but it is interesting (to me) that it doesn't even seem to be considered that the Ripper requested fellatio and then strangled the victims before it commenced.
If someone passes out when they're upright, and then they fall to the ground, would there be bruising? I'd imagine so. but I'm not aware of any bruising be described on the first four canonical victims.
If someone's being strangled and they're kneeling down, they'll have a much harder job escaping the strangulation; they also can't use their legs to, for instance, knee the attacker in the bollocks.
To me, this should at least be a possibility, surely. Just a thought. I'm not an expert on the killings so appreciate I could very easily have overlooked some huge error, but I'd be interested to know, if anyone's able to help me out, why the 'kneeling down' scenario doesn't seem to have got any following. Is it a throwback to Victorian sensibilities - "ladies never move" and all that?
Thanks,
Syrius
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