Dear all,
Watching Ripper Street last night got me thinking. In the programme when the anti semitic graffiti appeared around Whitechapel, the words used to describe the Jews were all derogatory and offensive.
With apologies for using those words, they were saying things like "Kike" and "Yids" etc to describe them.
Linking this with Martin Fido's view that the graffiti was just a disgruntled customer moaning that a Jewish trader wouldn't give him a refund or some other slight and it was just by chance that the piece of apron appeared at that point, wouldn't an angry Eastender expressing their anger use one of the words above instead of the polite "Jews?"
If we assume that a truly disgruntled customer wouldn't hold back and would write "Those Y*d ba****ds" or "Robbing K***s" instead of a nice polite "The Jews," does that lend support to the idea that the graffiti was put there by somebody else?
Ultimately leading to the question of whether it could have been put there by the Ripper?
Any thoughts?
regards,
Watching Ripper Street last night got me thinking. In the programme when the anti semitic graffiti appeared around Whitechapel, the words used to describe the Jews were all derogatory and offensive.
With apologies for using those words, they were saying things like "Kike" and "Yids" etc to describe them.
Linking this with Martin Fido's view that the graffiti was just a disgruntled customer moaning that a Jewish trader wouldn't give him a refund or some other slight and it was just by chance that the piece of apron appeared at that point, wouldn't an angry Eastender expressing their anger use one of the words above instead of the polite "Jews?"
If we assume that a truly disgruntled customer wouldn't hold back and would write "Those Y*d ba****ds" or "Robbing K***s" instead of a nice polite "The Jews," does that lend support to the idea that the graffiti was put there by somebody else?
Ultimately leading to the question of whether it could have been put there by the Ripper?
Any thoughts?
regards,
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