Kind of a vague question, but I couldn’t put the whole question in the title.
What I’m specifically asking is if the killer killed either before or after the Autumn of Terror in the same
manner, only in a different area or country that at the time had a poor or non-existent press industry, would it be possible that those crimes were never known to police at the time or subsequent Ripperologists and were almost immediately lost to time?
If so, what areas of the world in 1888 would have such a dearth of a press influence?
What I’m specifically asking is if the killer killed either before or after the Autumn of Terror in the same
manner, only in a different area or country that at the time had a poor or non-existent press industry, would it be possible that those crimes were never known to police at the time or subsequent Ripperologists and were almost immediately lost to time?
If so, what areas of the world in 1888 would have such a dearth of a press influence?
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