Evening everyone! I have been studying the Thames Torso murders and am unsure why they were discounted as JTR? I understand the dismemberment being with the torso murders and JTR didn't dismember in Whitechaple. Was this the only reason they were crossed off of the list of possible JTR victims? Has anyone done a dissertation explaining the finer points of discounting these murders as JTR?
I have a hard time believing there were 2 serial killers with overlapping territories who were not copy cats being in the same place time frame wise. I am sure in the past 100 years I am not the only one to think this I was looking for some good opinions and dissertations on the subject. Thanks
I have a hard time believing there were 2 serial killers with overlapping territories who were not copy cats being in the same place time frame wise. I am sure in the past 100 years I am not the only one to think this I was looking for some good opinions and dissertations on the subject. Thanks
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