Originally posted by Doctored Whatsit
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1, If the killer was harvesting organs why did he mutilate the abdomens in such a way as to damage any organs he may have been seeking
2. Why would he take a second urterus from Eddowes when had a perfect intact specimen from Chapman
3, If the killer removed the organs from the victims why do we see two different methods of extraction involving two different mortuaries
4. Do posters who seek to dampen this theory fully appreciate the degree of difficulty in the killer having to put his hand into a blood-filled abdomen in the dark with a long bladed knife and to try to locate the organs and then if the killer was able to locate them to be able to grip the wet and slippery organs in the dark and be able to remove them in the case of Chapman not only the uterus but a uterus with the fallopian tubes still attached without the aid of a retractor to hold the walls of the abdomen open is beyond comprehension
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