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Old 06-03-2013, 10:13 PM
Mayerling Mayerling is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Phil H View Post
To re-ignite the original theme of this discussion, I have delved quite deeply into the subject over recent years. To me the answer is quite clear:

* the plays and poems contain Warwickshire "dialect" words for many things and William was a Warwickshire lad;

* the works can be related closely to events in William Shakespeare's life;

* Ovid's Metamorphoses is known to have been one of Shakespeare's favorite works/sources;

* there is a copy of Hall's chronicles (a source for the History Plays) that is annotated in a hand acknowledged by experts to be Shakespeare's;

* Honigmann has shown that the "lost years" can be explained by a sojourn in Lancashire which connects William to Lord Strange (later the Earl of Derby)and his acting company;

* many activities mentioned in the plays, and the use of metaphor related to them, would have been familiar to Shakespeare - such as glove-making and butchery;

* William's catholic upbringing can be related to some of the approaches to authority etc taken in his plays;

* the so-called insights into the noble life-style can be explained readily by, at the outset his relation to the Arden family and later to his exposure to the royal court and courtiers;

* Shakespeare was alive through the time his plays appeared (which marlow, as an example, was not);

* William's acting associates published the first folio in his name - why do so if they did not know and recognise him as the author?

* disputes about different signatures/spellings of the name, simply reflect the custom of the day which did not have recognised or consistent spelling.

I reject all the complex ideas of Baconian codes (no one agrees on any) or other "games", with William as a cover for a more "noble" author, as ridiculous and impractical.

To me there is no question: William Shakespeare of Stratford was one and the same as "William Shakespeare" the playwright.

Phil
I might add one more item. A minor dramatist named Greene was apparently jealous of Shakespeare's success, and wrote a purposely misquoted line from one of the Shakespeare plays as a put down on his unnamed rival (whom he refers to as a "Shakescene". Somehow, had Bacon or the Earl of Oxford written the plays, I am sure Greene would have heard and muzzled his comments - they would not have looked tolerantly at somebody making waves about their plays, and they would have had the clout to make life unpleasant for Greene or anyone else who did just that.

Jeff
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