I'm not talking about in general, I am talking about the specific example that Jonathan pointed out with the two typos.
The way I realized that this was not the actual court document was because there was a (sic) there after "penus". That only occurs when someone wants to indicate that a word was misspelled in the original. So I knew, when I saw that I wasn't looking at the original.
But there's no (sic) in Jonathan's above cited example. Why not? Is it misspelled in the original and Mike didn't put (sic) this time for some reason or is it a mistake from when Mike transcribed it.
We can only blame the court transcriber for mistakes we KNOW they made. And again, even if these were original court transcriber mistakes, there's still a world of difference between making spelling errors and leaving out a key word that someone really wants to be there because it just makes it soooo much more juicy that way.
Let all Oz be agreed;
I'm Wicked through and through.