I don't know whether this idea has been mooted before.
Was Martha the first victim of the inchoate JTR before be developed his mature 'technique'? Or was she the victim of someone else entirely? These questions have been going around for years and opinion among the Ripperologist community seems roughly divided 50-50.
What if Martha was not a victim of our man? But there being no connection between such unusually violent knife murders seems a huge coincidence. It was only three weeks before Nichols' murder and only a few streets away.
What if Martha was JTR's catalyst? Say he had some connection with the dead woman or the crime? Perhaps he lived very close to George Yard and was a minor witness? Perhaps he was one of Martha's regular customers? Perhaps he was just overwhelmed by the public panic and shock which resulted from the George Yard murder?
Could our man have been fantacising about Martha's murder and was this his deadly catalyst?
Was Martha the first victim of the inchoate JTR before be developed his mature 'technique'? Or was she the victim of someone else entirely? These questions have been going around for years and opinion among the Ripperologist community seems roughly divided 50-50.
What if Martha was not a victim of our man? But there being no connection between such unusually violent knife murders seems a huge coincidence. It was only three weeks before Nichols' murder and only a few streets away.
What if Martha was JTR's catalyst? Say he had some connection with the dead woman or the crime? Perhaps he lived very close to George Yard and was a minor witness? Perhaps he was one of Martha's regular customers? Perhaps he was just overwhelmed by the public panic and shock which resulted from the George Yard murder?
Could our man have been fantacising about Martha's murder and was this his deadly catalyst?
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