There's quite a bit about Martha Tabram's murder, the autopsy and its findings, all on their own and as well in conjunction with several theories regarding her death that make very little sense to me. I'm not a Martha expert, so I'm more than happy to be corrected by facts (rather than theories, please) where applicable. I'm actually thinking out loud, so reserve the right to answer my own questions as I go, heh..
1. Martha was clearly strangled or suffocated while still alive, or a/ there'd be no point doing it, and b/ her face would not be swollen. Strangulation isn't all about lack of oxygen, it can also include pressure on the large arteries of the neck (particularly during ligature strangulation), restricting blood flow to the brain (producing cerebral anemia, which might make perfect sense of Tabram's notably "pale" looking brain tissue). Also, veinous congestion of the jugular, perhaps by a wider ligature (such as a piece of cloth) causes rapid rise in blood pressure in the head - causing swelling and discoloration of the face. I'm not sure whether this would cause a "pale" looking looking brain, though.
What doesn't make sense to me here is, if Martha was strangled *so hard* that it caused her face to bloat and discolour, how did this not also kill her? Why should we assume that it didn't? Which leads me to ...
3. If Martha lived for any amount of time after she was strangled, and then also survived for any amount of time after 9 stabs to the throat, two stabs to one lung and then five to the other -- if she was still breathing, or attempting to breathe, after any and all of that, then WHY was there no blood in her mouth
It doesn't make sense to me that if Tabram was alive and attempting to breathe with two perforated lungs and a throat stabbed nine times, there's no blood in her mouth.
It makes much more sense, if I consider that she might have already been dead for the stabbing. Which leads me to:
4. The finding that she died from "exsanguination". Blood loss. Not the strangulation that made her face swell up like a big purple balloon. Not the stab wound to her heart, or the 7 collective stab wounds to her lungs, or aspiration of blood from the 9 stab wounds to her throat. Killeen posits that she somehow survived past all of that, and bled to death?
5: These things, in the autopsy report:
the heart was stabbed once, which was rather fatty; except for stab wound nothing about the heart to cause death;
So why isn't cause of death "fatal stab wound to the heart?"
there was a lot of blood between her legs
But no examination of what what caused it? No mention at all in the inquest report of where that blood came from? The location and type of wound that caused it? Why? Yet we're told:
the breasts, stomach, abdomen, and vagina seemed to have been the main areas
Of what? Stabbing? Can we eke from this the suggestion that Martha was stabbed in the vagina? Why not just say so? How is this not strongly suggestive of the Ripper? Why is Tabram, with these injuries to those areas of her body, NOT up there in the c5, but Stride is? That makes no sense to me.
Why did he stab in a bunch of clusters, around major organs, and not just randomly all over the place? The chest wounds. okay, I can see breasts being the target there. But lower down -- was he maybe after stabbing the ovaries and womb?
the stab wound to the heart might have been made by a dagger or bayonet by a left-handed person.
Or someone right-handed, crouching at the opposite end of her body... How'd he come to these left/right conclusions, anyway? Show your reasoning man!
death was due to hemorrhage and loss of blood
Already mentioned above. But let me just say here: REALLY? At what stage. please? How 'bout a wild guess, Dr. Killeen? No?
sexual intercourse had not recently taken place
Then what the heck had her 'date' been doing with her that night? Enjoying her scintillating conversation?
no evidence of a struggle; except for the wound on the chest bone
She's supposed to have survived being strangled blue in the face, stabbed in a bunch of vital organs, stabbed in the heart (in whatever order one chooses ot place those)... then went on, according to Killeen, to bleed to death... yet there's no signs of struggle. No drag marks, no great sloughs of blood indicating she tried to crawl away.
She was attacked, it seems, in situ and it seems, was quite quickly and utterly overcome, probably rendered unconscious (via severe strangulation/lack of blood to the brain), before that long series of potentially fatal injuries didn't kill her and she bled out...
Or just maybe Tabram was killed outright via strangulation, and all the stabbery was post mortem. Which leads me to:
6: HOW can people insist her stab wounds could not possibly be postmortem due to the blood loss, when less than 20 seconds of Googling can pull up a whole slew of documents proving that according to forensic science, bodies can and do bleed after death?
Phew. This has likely all been argued and argued.. but at least I feel better after venting. Also, a deal more convinced JtR might have this, and Tabram was dead for all the stabbing.
If this was Jack, why'd he quit stabbing and start 'ripping', just a few weeks later? Was the womb-level stab/slice on Tabram the beginning of it?